Presidential Inaugural Ceremonies

Skimming the DC Code and I come across Presidential Inaugural Ceremonies after 1998. The statute gives Council the authority to issue rules, which struck me as kind of…off-putting? since rules are generally the province of the executive/Mayor. But whatever. A bit further along I notice reference to streetcars, and of course we’re in the process of getting streetcars now, again, but in 1998 there weren’t streetcars, so why did the law mention them?

Then I get to Presidential Inaugural Ceremonies after 1956 and it all becomes almost clear. In skimming, I noticed no differences — NONE — (though again, I was only skimming) in content between the two. The only differences were in format.

Why do I say “almost clear”? Because 1. the 1998 law was passed by Congress (which explains the keeping of Council-as-rule-maker, but why wasn’t the law the doing of Council?) and 2. if there’s no difference, then why the new law?

Anyone have insight on this?

Marriage

Did I fool you into thinking that this would be a political post?

Sorry, no such luck. Just wanting to point out an inconsistency I came across while skimming the DC Code regarding public sector workers’ compensation. (Not injured on the job. Putting together some information about DCHR.) DC Code 1-623.01, definitions:

(9) The term “child” means one who at the time of the death of the employee is under 18 years of age or over that age and incapable of self-support, and includes stepchildren, adopted children and posthumous children, but does not include married children.

(10) The term “grandchild” means one who at the time of the death of the employee is under 18 years of age or over that age and incapable of self-support.

Notice: the definition of “child” excludes married children. The definition of “grandchild” does NOT exclude married grandchildren.

Any thoughts as to why?

And the difference is what, exactly?

I needed to read the Council rules for a quick bit of research. In doing so, I skimmed the definitions section, where I came across the definition of Council recess:

You will note that recess includes August through September 15…and, listed separately, July 15-August 1. So I ask, is there some substantive difference that requires the two periods to be identified separately, and not be written simply as “July 15th through September 15th”?

Progressive?

Today’s post comes from a combination of my curiosity and my ignorance of history.

I would guess (with no research into the question), as a matter of course, that a government’s default stance is that a person is ineligible for benefits until proven otherwise. It just makes sense, as sound fiscal policy. (This does not mean that a government should create hurdles to proving eligibility, though.) It also makes sense that someone who isn’t a resident of a given jurisdiction shouldn’t be eligible for that jurisdiction’s benefits.*

Additionally, it seems to me, though if you haven’t noticed yet I am the master of overly-broad-generalizations-based-on-not-much, that there has been a trend recently (where by recently I mean in the time I’ve lived in DC) to expand eligibility.

So I was surprised to come across this policy order from 1969:

Was this standard at the time? Or was it a progressive move by the federally-appointed folks running DC in those days?

I’d love to learn more.

 

*BIG issue regarding services for homeless people. I’m not talking about those.

White male property owners?

Is that provocative enough? Too provocative? Too provocative since race and racism are the issues of the week? (We haven’t heard of any new transvaginal ultrasound requirements this week, have we?) Too provocative since this is only about property ownership and not race or sex?

After my post yesterday, I saw a surge in readership (nothing to do with search engine optimization or anything like that, just one retweet and finally admitting this blog’s existence by way of facebook), so in case any of those new readers stuck around, let me explain that I usually focus on local issues, and generally hyper-specific at that. Lots of things come across in old documents as I compile them for work.

Which brings me to the issue of property ownership.

In the olden days, voting was restricted to white male property owners. Gradually, thankfully, voting rights were extended so that now all adults (except for felons and in some cases ex-felons) may vote. Without recalling any of the American history I learned in high school (key recollections from 11th grade American history: 1st of day, teacher had a fork in his shirt pocket, and “Hugo” referred to Hurricane Hugo), nevertheless I know that by the time of World War II, every citizen over the age of 21 at least technically had the right to vote. I don’t remember when things like Jim Crow laws were finally struck down. And I really don’t remember at which point in the expansion of voting rights property ownership was removed as a requirement.

This is relevant, I promise!

Because today I came across a document from 1955 establishing a Board for which real property ownership (in DC) was a criteria for serving on.

Organization Order 112, Establishment of Board of Appeals & Review, August 11, 1955. The Board of Appeals & Review was the precursor to the Office of Administrative Hearings, though it’s unclear to me what the role of the Board members was in adjudicating cases. On the one hand , the Board “shall consider and make final determinations,” but on the other hand, they were to hire one or more hearing officers who would conduct “all hearings on matters coming before the Board.” Maybe it’s just unclear to me because I’ve never gotten to be the judge that was, for a time, my career aspiration.

I ask the question about the parallel of Board members to judges because property ownership was (again, if I remember correctly, etc etc) for some time also a requirement for being a judge. I know even less about when this stopped being a requirement in DC or elsewhere.

So I leave you with the questions that first came to mind when I noticed this: WHY was property ownership a requirement? Why wasn’t residence enough? In 1955, what did this mean for the racial composition of the Board?

Do you have any ideas? Please share them in the comments.